Diploma in operation theatre technology question paper pdf download

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Here you will get an OT technician technology question paper with answers. Operation theatre technology question paper 2022 is available for all the aspirants of the OT technician examination. This is the model question paper of operation theatre technology with all subjects.

Diploma in operation theatre technology question paper with answers

Q1. Anesthesia machine contains how many pressure systems?

A. Two (High and low)
B. Three (High, Intermediate, and low)
C. Four (High, intermediate, low, and very low)
D. One (High)

Q2. Magill’s breathing circuit is best suited for?

A. Spontaneous ventilation
B. Controlled ventilation
C. Spontaneous and controlled both
D. Paediatric patient ventilation

Q3. In anesthesia machine pipeline pressure gauzes are part of the?

A. Intermediate pressure system
B. High-pressure system
C. Low-pressure system
D. Very low-pressure system

Q4. The color of the carbon dioxide cylinder is

A. Black
B. Grey
C. Pink
D. Green

Q5. Absorb a newer soda lime absorbs how much of Co2 per 100 gm?

A. 10.2 L
B. 8.4 L.
C. 5.6L.
D. 15.5L

Q6. AMBU stands for?

A. Anesthesia machine breathing unit.
B. Artificial mandatory breathing unit.
C. Automated machine and breathing unit.
D. Automated manual breathing unit

Q7. What Route of drug administration is most commonly used in OT?

A. intraosseous route.
B. Intramuscular.
C. Subcutaneous route.
D. Intravenous route.

Q8. What Rendell Baker Sauces (RBS) mask is used for?

A. Old patients.
B. Pediatric patients.
C. Obese patients
D. Adult patients.

Q9. PIN index safety system is used in anesthesia machines.

A. To attach any gas cylinder in any york assembly
B. To hold the cylinder securely.
C. To prevent incorrect cylinder attachment
D. To release the cylinder when needed.

Q10. In head Injury, the patient’s mannitol is given to?

A. To stop bleeding.
B. For the protection of the brain.
C. For the protection of the spinal cord.
D. To reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)

Q12. Bupivacaine Heavy is used in?

A. Epidural anesthesia.
B. Spinal anesthesia.
C. Nerve block anesthesia.
D. General anesthesia.

Q13. The cylinder most commonly used on anesthesia machines?

A. Type A
B. Type B.
C. Type D.
D. Type E.

Q14. What Size of endotracheal tube required for a female adult patient is?

A. 7.5 mm.
B. 8.5 mm.
C. 6.0 mm
D. 6.5 mm.

Q15. Cardiac failure is defined as:

A. When the heart is not beating very fast.
B. When the heartbeat is very slow.
C. When the heart stopped working.
D. When the heart is not able to maintain sufficient circulation in the body

Q16. Autoclaving (steam sterilization) is not good for

A. Surgical instruments.
B. Linen.
C. Glass syringes.
D. Disposable PVC items.

Q17. Cidex is

A. 10% Povidone Iodine.
B. 2% Glutaraldehyde.
C. 4% Sodium Hypochlorite.
D. 2% Bleaching Powder

Q18. In autoclaving sterilization is done by?

A. Saturated steam.
B. Dry steam
C. Dry heat
D. Hot water

Q19. Tourniquet time for the upper limb is:

A. 100 minutes.
B. 120 minutes
C. 180 minutes
D. 90 minutes

Q20. Disinfection of an endoscope after use is done by

A. By dipping in Cidex for 30 minutes.
B. By autoclaving.
C. In E0 gas sterilizer.
D. By radiation.

Q21. Artificial prostheses are sterilized by

A. Boiling.
B. In Cidex.
C. Supplied sterile.
D. Chemical sterilization

Q22. Deaver’s retractor is used in

A. In minor surgeries.
B. Surgeries on head and neck.
C. In nasal surgery.
D. Abdominal surgeries.

Q23. Metal implants are sterilized by?

A. By dipping in Cidex for 30 minutes
B. By autoclaving.
C. In E0 gas sterilizer.
D. By radiation.

Q24. Which of the following term describe the amount of blood affected per heartbeat?

A. Stroke volume.
B. After load.
C. Cardiac output.
D. D. Vital volume.

Q25. Protamine sulfate is the antidote of?

A. Insulin.
B. Heparin
C. Cefazolin.
D. Aspirin.

Q26. The Negative pressure in the suction machine is

A. 200-300 mm of Hg.
B. 1000 mm of Hg.
C. 400-700 mm of Hg.
D. 50-100 mm of Hg.

Q27. In ventricular fibrillation first treatment is?

A. Cardiac massage.
B. I.V infusion.
C. Drugs
D. Defibrillation if a defibrillator is available

Q28. Jackson Rees (JR) circuit is

A. Modification of Mapleson “D”.
B. Modification of Mapleson “A”.
C. Modification of Mapleson “B”.
D. Modification of Mapleson “F”.

Q29. What is the service pressure of a cylinder?

A. Minimum pressure of the cylinder when full
B. Maximum pressure of cylinder when transported
C. Maximum pressure to which the cylinder may be filled at 70-degree F
D. Pressure of cylinder when in service phase

Q30. Circuit best suited for controlled ventilation is

A. Mapleson “A”
B. Mapleson “D”
C. Mapleson “E”
D. Mapleson “F”

Q31. The temperature of the operating room should be

A. 24-38 degree centigrade.
B. 22-24 degree centigrade
C. 16-18 degree centigrade.
D. 18-20 degree centigrade.

Q32. The PIN index for Nitrous Oxide is?

A. 3.5
B. 2.5
C. 3.6
D. 1.5

Q33. The pipeline pressure of gases in OT is

A. 65-70 PSI
B. 55-60 PSI
C. 40-45 PSI
D. 70-75 PSI

Q34. In the Double Lumen endotracheal tube bronchial cuff inflated with the volume of air.

A. 5 ML
B. 10 ML
C. 2 ML
D. 20 ML

Q35. The minimum effective concentration of Cadex solution is

A. 2%.
B. 1%.
C. 0.5%.
D. 1.5%

Q36. A position used for nephrectomy is?

A. Lithotomy.
B. Supine.
C. Lateral.
D. Trendelenburg.

Q37. For Laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient is positioned on an OT table in

A. Reverse Trendelenburg
B. Supine position.
C. Prone position.
D. Trendelenburg position

Q38. Which is the most common complication of spinal anaesthesia°

A. High spinal
B. Hypotension
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Shivering

Q39. An endotracheal tube has F-29, Z-79, or ASTM written on it What does it mean?

A. ET tube is made of PVC.
B. ET tube is meant for single use only
C. ET tube has passed the tissue reactivity test
D. ET tube is made of red rubber.

Q40. Which of the following is not a contraindication for giving spinal anesthesia?

A. Head injury
B. Coagulopathy
C. Patient refusal
D. Old age

Q41. Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of Desflurane is

A. 6%
B. 1.15%
C. 1.7%
D. 4.5%

Q42. Which is the following is not an adverse effect of Thiopentone?

A. Hypotension
B. Raised intracranial pressure (ICP)
C. Hyperthermia
D. Bronchospasm

Q43. Muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure patients is

A. Pancuronium
B. Atracurium
C. Vecuronium
D. Scoline

Q44. Ringer Lactate (RL) is contraindicated in patients with

A. Blunt Trauma abdomen
B. Renal failure
C. Coagulopathy
D. Head injury

Q45. Platelets before transfusion are stored at

A. 22-degree centigrade
B. 37-degree centigrade
C. 4-degree centigrade
D. -20 degree centigrade

Q46. Scoline is not given to

A. Burn patients
B. Obese patients
C. Elderly patients
D. Patients with difficult airway

Q47. The most commonly used temperature and time combination in autoclaving is

A. 115 degree centigrade for 25 minutes
B. 145 degree centigrade for 45 minutes
C. 121 degree centigrade for 30 minutes
D. 138 degree centigrade for 30 minutes

Q48. The ideal length of an epidural catheter inserted in epidural space is

A. 2cm
B. 12cm
C. 8cm
D. 5cm

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